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The mighty God


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Steven3
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PostPosted: Wed Jul 11, 2007 1:01 am    Post subject: Reply with quote

Hi MoJo
Thank you for the welcome.
MoJo wrote:
Steven wrote:
Finally, if Jesus was God, or even could be "called God", why isn't there a single clear verse in 66 books that just says so?
Actually there are hundreds, possibly thousands;you just have to study it out and connect the dots to see it. How about this one;Zec 14:5
To me the word clear, means clear, it means not having to "connect the dots" in order to arrive at the conclusion desired.

Re the example, yes I'm aware that 1Th 3:13, like many NT verses, particulary the clusters in Heb1 and Rev, takes language which the OT, like Zech14:5, applies to God and applies it to the Son of God. That's the NT writers' privilege. After all, what else would we expect: "He comes with his father's saints"?? Hardly. In any case it doesn't say "Jesus is God", nor "Jesus is called God", does it. It is an inferred argument, and one that has several other options.

Quote:
Quote:
4. Everyone (Trinitarians and non-Trinitarians) recognises that the first application of Emmanu-el can only be to someone who lived in Isaiah's day (Is.7:1,15, 2Ki15:27-30,15:37,16:5,9). Most commentaries suggest Hezekiah, with good evidence. If Hezekiah could be called Emmanu-el, then it is not unlikely that "called Pele-yoetz, El-Gibor, Avi-Ad, Sar-Shalom" applies in the first fulfillment to Hezekiah as well, without Hezekiah actually being God himself.
Everyone?
I think perhaps you may have misread the sentence. Yes everyone, including yourself. Everyone (Trinitarians and non-Trinitarians) recognises that the first application of Emmanu-el can only be to someone who lived in Isaiah's day (Is.7:1,15, 2Ki15:27-30,15:37,16:5,9). Please read the verse references given above and then tell me you aren't included in everyone. Cool
God bless
Steven
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TBax
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PostPosted: Wed Jul 11, 2007 3:18 am    Post subject: Reply with quote

Apoc,

Hi, Very Happy

Apoc wrote:
Actually, TBax, theos is used fifteen times in the Gospel of John without the definite article. Can you guess what theos refers to in each of these instances?


Nice research. Good point Apoc. Smile It does matter how the sentence is structured. The point is if it is with the definite article, and "god" was not the subject of the sentence, then there would be no descrepency. "The God" was used to describe who the Word was with, but the definite article is missing in describing what the Word was.

At John 1:1 the Word is the subject of the sentence. And theos was describing what the Word was. Theos by itself can be rendered a god, and in this instance it fits.

The literal word for word is :"In beginning was the Word, and the Word was toward the God and god was the Word"
If the Word was indeed the supreme Divinity then the definite article should have been used in the second instance, and there would be no issue here. I realize many translations say "the Word was God" as well. Which rendering is more accurate and fits in harmony with the rest of the Bible?

John 1:18 No man has seen God at any time


(1 John 4:12) At no time has anyone beheld God. If we continue loving one another, God remains in us and his love is made perfect in us.


(John 6:46) Not that any man has seen the Father, except he who is from God; this one has seen the Father


John 17:3 In prayer to his Father "3 This means everlasting life, their taking in knowledge of you, the only true God, and of the one whom you sent forth, Jesus Christ. "

John 20:17 Jesus said to her: “Stop clinging to me. For I have not yet ascended to the Father. But be on your way to my brothers and say to them, ‘I am ascending to my Father and YOUR Father and to my God and YOUR God.’”


This is what the apostles believed 1 Cor 8:6 there is actually to us one God the Father, out of whom all things are, and we for him; and there is one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom all things are, and we through him.

Revelation 1:1 A revelation by Jesus Christ, which God gave him, to show his slaves the things that must shortly take place. And he sent forth his angel and presented [it] in signs through him to his slave John,



All these verses show God and Jesus are seperate individuals. No matter what translation you use.
Very Happy


-----------

Apoc wrote:
No man has seen God as Spirit, for Spirit is intangible. God has, however, been seen in the flesh!

Quote:
(John 6:46) Not that any man has seen the Father, except he who is from God; this one has seen the Father

First of all John 1:18 doesn't make that qualification. Second, the scripture you used shows Jesus isn't God, but was sent from God.
Apoc wrote:
Yes, and we see the Father in the Son:

If ye had known me, ye should have known my Father also: and from henceforth ye know him, and have seen him. - John 14:7


Yes, Jesus was perfectly taught by God and reflected His qualities perfectly. But the scripture hold true that :
John 1:18 No man has seen God at any time; the only-begotten god who is in the bosom [position] with the Father is the one that has explained him.

Hence Jesus is not God, but explained Him to us.


Take care. Very Happy
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Last edited by TBax on Wed Jul 11, 2007 4:09 am; edited 2 times in total
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TBax
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PostPosted: Wed Jul 11, 2007 3:30 am    Post subject: Reply with quote

Mojo,

Hi, Very Happy

Just because similar phrasing is used between 2 scriptures is no clear reason to believe 1 person is the other. Both Jesus and king Nebuchadnezzer are called "King of kings".


John 5:43 I have come in the name of my Father,

When Jesus does come he does so in the name of his Father. That doesn't make him Jehovah, but with authority from Jehovah.

Again you seem to suggest Jehovah is Jesus. In the following, we have the prophesy and the fulfillment in the scriptures.
Who is Jehovah speaking to in vs 44:
Matt 23:42 “What do YOU think about the Christ? Whose son is he?” They said to him: “David’s.” 43 He said to them: “How, then, is it that David by inspiration calls him ‘Lord,’ saying, 44 ‘Jehovah said to my Lord: “Sit at my right hand until I put your enemies beneath your feet”’?

Are you familiar with how this was fulfilled?

Take care. Very Happy
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apocatastasis
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PostPosted: Wed Jul 11, 2007 4:39 am    Post subject: Reply with quote

TBax wrote:
"The God" was used to describe who the Word was with, but the definite article is missing in describing what the Word was.


And your point is?

Quote:
At John 1:1 the Word is the subject of the sentence. And theos was describing what the Word was. Theos by itself can be rendered a god, and in this instance it fits.


It no more fits this instance than it fits the other 14 instances theos is used without the definite article in the Gospel of John.

Quote:
The literal word for word is :"In beginning was the Word, and the Word was toward the God and god was the Word"


Indeed!

Quote:
If the Word was indeed the supreme Divinity then the definite article should have been used in the second instance, and there would be no issue here.


What makes you, who knows exceedingly little about Greek, think that the definite article should have been used? Clearly, in every other instance that theos is used in John without the definite article, it refers to God almighty. Can you dispute this?

Quote:
I realize many translations say "the Word was God" as well. Which rendering is more accurate and fits in harmony with the rest of the Bible?


I've already demonstrated which translation is consistent with john's usage of theos without the definite article.

Quote:
John 1:18 No man has seen God at any time


Indeed, no man has seen God in His essence, Spirit. But then the Spirit became flesh for us all to behold. I've already give you a verse in John where we are told that we see God in the Son, but you have ignored it.
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TBax
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PostPosted: Wed Jul 11, 2007 5:11 am    Post subject: Reply with quote

Apoc,

Hi, Very Happy

Apoc wrote:
What makes you, who knows exceedingly little about Greek, think that the definite article should have been used?


Rolling Eyes Don't pretend that you know more. Smile
You are missing the point. There is a descrepency as to how this can be translated. Are you saying every time theos is used without the definite article it is refering to God Almighty?

John 10:33 The Jews answered him: “We are stoning you, not for a fine work, but for blasphemy, even because you, although being a man, make yourself a god.” 34 Jesus answered them: “Is it not written in your Law, ‘I said: “YOU are gods”’? 35 If he called ‘gods’ those against whom the word of God came, and yet the Scripture cannot be nullified, 36 do YOU say to me whom the Father sanctified and dispatched into the world, ‘You blaspheme,’ because I said, I am God’s Son?

Here, in Green, "theos" is used without the definite article.
The Blue "theos" is used with the definite article.

Are you saying all these instances should be saying "God", as in God Almighty.

Jesus' point in that scripture is that since these imperfect men can be called gods then certainly God's own Son can be a god. Smile

Did Jesus think he was God?
John 17:3 In prayer to his Father "3 This means everlasting life, their taking in knowledge of you, the only true God, and of the one whom you sent forth, Jesus Christ. "

Did the apostles think Jesus was God?
This is what the apostles believed 1 Cor 8:6 there is actually to us one God the Father, out of whom all things are, and we for him; and there is one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom all things are, and we through him.

Apoc, if you are going to harp on your understanding of greek you are going to miss the point. The scriptures make it clear.

Apoc wrote:
Indeed, no man has seen God in His essence, Spirit. But then the Spirit became flesh for us all to behold. I've already give you a verse in John where we are told that we see God in the Son, but you have ignored it.


I didn't ignor it. I posted this in an edit. Maybe you missed it. Here it is again.Very Happy

TBax wrote:
Apoc wrote:
No man has seen God as Spirit, for Spirit is intangible. God has, however, been seen in the flesh!

Quote:
(John 6:46) Not that any man has seen the Father, except he who is from God; this one has seen the Father

First of all John 1:18 doesn't make that qualification. Second, the scripture you used shows Jesus isn't God, but was sent from God.
Apoc wrote:
Yes, and we see the Father in the Son:

If ye had known me, ye should have known my Father also: and from henceforth ye know him, and have seen him. - John 14:7


Yes, Jesus was perfectly taught by God and reflected His qualities perfectly. But the scripture hold true that :
John 1:18 No man has seen God at any time; the only-begotten god who is in the bosom [position] with the Father is the one that has explained him.

Hence Jesus is not God, but explained Him to us.


Take care. Very Happy


And this was written after Jesus was here. Confused or disgusted Actually, all the NT was, but here you go.

(1 John 4:12) At no time has anyone beheld God.

Take care. Very Happy
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MoJo
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PostPosted: Wed Jul 11, 2007 7:13 am    Post subject: Reply with quote

Steven wrote:
To me the word clear, means clear, it means not having to "connect the dots" in order to arrive at the conclusion desired.


that's an interesting stance. All I can say is good luck in trying to understand the bible if you can't connect dots.

was the OT written with a veil over it? What do you think that means?

Very Happy Very Happy
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MoJo
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PostPosted: Wed Jul 11, 2007 7:21 am    Post subject: Reply with quote

tbax wrote:
John 5:43 I have come in the name of my Father,


How long has he been coming in the name of his Father?

Rev 1:8 I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the ending, saith the Lord, which is, and which was, and which is to come, the Almighty.

Psa 40:7 Then said I, Lo, I come: in the volume of the book [it is] written of me,

Jhn 5:46 For had ye believed Moses, ye would have believed me: for he wrote of me.

Very Happy Very Happy
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Steven3
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PostPosted: Wed Jul 11, 2007 7:38 am    Post subject: Re: The mighty God Reply with quote

Hi MoJo
Have you looked at the first verse of Is.7 for me. What do you think now? Wink

Well I'm not saying that one shouldn't try and connect dots occasionally, provided they are dots not just specks, I merely said that there was no clear verse in 66 books of the "I am a man who" "the man Christ Jesus" "Jesus of Nazareth, a man" etc. variety of clear, which says that Jesus was/is God.

The pursuit of connecting the dots should be reserved for the little things, such as whether the sinful woman, Mary Magdalene and Mary of Bethany are all the same person (I think they are, but proving it requires a few dots to be connected). Proving that Jesus is the coeternal, cosubstantial, coequal Creator YHWH, requires a little better than "dots".

For example, the "dot" that Is.9:6 is meant to represent, one of the strongest darkest ink dots in the OT for Trinitarians, looks decidedly specky when this list of caveats is brought to bear on it:

Steven3 wrote:
MoJo wrote:
Isa 9:6 For unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given: and the government shall be upon his shoulder: and his name shall be called Wonderful, Counsellor, The mighty God, The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace.


Hi MoJo
I'm not going to deny that if this was the only verse in the Bible dealing with who Jesus is then I'd believe that the word "God" could be applied to him. However:

1. It isn't the only verse in the Bible. Christ claims to be "a man" John 8:40, but never claims to be "God".
2. "called" is not the same as "is". Not in English, not in Hebrew.
3. אֵל גִּבּוֹר, ’el gibor doesn't actually mean "the mighty God". See Strongs, Youngs or e-Sword.
4. Everyone (Trinitarians and non-Trinitarians) recognises that the first application of Emmanu-el can only be to someone who lived in Isaiah's day (Is.7:1,15, 2Ki15:27-30,15:37,16:5,9). Most commentaries suggest Hezekiah, with good evidence. If Hezekiah could be called Emmanu-el, then it is not unlikely that "called Pele-yoetz, El-Gibor, Avi-Ad, Sar-Shalom" applies in the first fulfillment to Hezekiah as well, without Hezekiah actually being God himself.
5. Serious scholarly Bible commentaries, even by Trinitarians, also apply Isaiah 9:6 firstly to events and people in Isaiah's day. See Isaiah: An Introduction and Commentary (Tyndale Old Testament Commentaries) by J. A. Motyer and D. J. Wiseman 1999). Word Biblical Commentary Vol. 24, Isaiah 1-33 (John D.W. Watts, Nelson Reference, 1985)
6. The LXX (i.e. Septuagint, Greek OT of the diaspora synagogues and early church) didn't have "mighty god" here either. The MSS have either "messenger of mighty will" or "mighty one, prince of peace" etc.
7. The JPS 1917 translation merely transliterates the Hebrew, keeping consistency with the treatment of "Emmanu-el" (7:14, 8:8), and "Maher-shalal-hash-baz" (8:1) with "Pele yoets, el gibor, avi-ad, sar-shalom" (9:6). Why isn't the KJV this consistent?

Finally, if Jesus was God, or even could be "called God", why isn't there a single clear verse in 66 books that just says so?
Steven


Do I think the OT was written with a veil over it? Yes. What do I think that means? That certain things related to Christ were to be revealed in the NT. That would include his kingship, virgin birth, birth from a human mother and God as a Father, the devil-concept, the holy spirit-concept, the new creation concept, and a dozen more things which are well documented in the NT but not in the OT. The Trinity however is something that is veiled in OT and NT and only partially unveiled in the writings of Tertullian, Athanasius, Origen and so on. I say partially because it is still "a mystery" today, according to the very personable Catholic Priest in our village anyway. That's the problem with people and the Trinitarian Jesus. The veil of this mystery prevents sincere people from looking at verses like Heb.5:7 and seeing what is really happening.
God bless
Steven
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TBax
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PostPosted: Wed Jul 11, 2007 8:20 am    Post subject: Reply with quote

Mojo,

Hi, Very Happy


Rev 1:8 I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the ending, saith the Lord, which is, and which was, and which is to come, the Almighty.

The Alpha and Omega here is God the Father. Just because God can "come" and Jesus can "come" that doesn't make them both God.

Mojo wrote:
How long has he been coming in the name of his Father?


Jesus told us he has been given all authority. Who gave him that authority?
John 5:30 I cannot do a single thing of my own initiative; just as I hear, I judge; and the judgment that I render is righteous, because I seek, not my own will, but the will of him that sent me.



Jhn 5:46 For had ye believed Moses, ye would have believed me: for he wrote of me.


Moses did indeed write about Jesus.
(Genesis 3:15) And I shall put enmity between you and the woman and between your seed and her seed. He will bruise you in the head and you will bruise him in the heel.”



(Genesis 49:10) The scepter will not turn aside from Judah, neither the commander’s staff from between his feet, until Shi´loh comes; and to him the obedience of the peoples will belong.



(Deuteronomy 18:15) A prophet from your own midst, from your brothers, like me, is what Jehovah your God will raise up for you—to him YOU people should listen—


You never seem to address this:
Who is Jehovah speaking to in vs 44:
Matt 23:42 “What do YOU think about the Christ? Whose son is he?” They said to him: “David’s.” 43 He said to them: “How, then, is it that David by inspiration calls him ‘Lord,’ saying, 44 ‘Jehovah said to my Lord: “Sit at my right hand until I put your enemies beneath your feet”’?

Are you familiar with how this was fulfilled?

Take care. Very Happy
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Steven3
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PostPosted: Wed Jul 11, 2007 8:31 am    Post subject: Reply with quote

If I may pop in:
MoJo wrote:
tbax wrote:
John 5:43 I have come in the name of my Father,
How long has he been coming in the name of his Father?
I'd go back further than that, to before Genesis 1:1. Peter (1Pe1:20) says that Christ "was foreknown indeed before the foundation of the world, but was manifested at the end of times for your sake". God foreknew Christ before he made Adam and Eve, before he made the first Messianic promise to Eve in Gen.3:15. Today it's possible to foreknow a baby's gender with the use of ultrasound, but foreknowing someone 4000 years before they are conceived is something quite special. (That also answers the why did God let Adam and Eve sin? question btw)

The next question would be whether you can foreknow someone who is sitting next to you from pre-eternity already, and whether Peter could have used a more suitable word like foreordained, much better. Confused or disgusted
God bless
S
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apocatastasis
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PostPosted: Wed Jul 11, 2007 12:18 pm    Post subject: Reply with quote

TBax, in order to make this exchange most productive, I was wondering if you could do me a favor and address each and every instance (except for 1:1) of John's usage of theos without the defintie article. Tell me if God almighty is or is not in view, ok?

Here they are again:


Jhn 1:6 ¶ There was a man sent from God, whose name [was] John.

Jhn 1:12 But as many as received him, to them gave he power to become the sons of God, [even] to them that believe on his name:

Jhn 1:13 Which were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God.

Jhn 1:18 No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared [him].

Jhn 3:2 The same came to Jesus by night, and said unto him, Rabbi, we know that thou art a teacher come from God: for no man can do these miracles that thou doest, except God be with him.

Jhn 3:21 But he that doeth truth cometh to the light, that his deeds may be made manifest, that they are wrought in God.

Jhn 6:45 It is written in the prophets, And they shall be all taught of God. Every man therefore that hath heard, and hath learned of the Father, cometh unto me.

Jhn 8:54 Jesus answered, If I honour myself, my honour is nothing: it is my Father that honoureth me; of whom ye say, that he is your God:

Jhn 9:16 Therefore said some of the Pharisees, This man is not of God, because he keepeth not the sabbath day. Others said, How can a man that is a sinner do such miracles? And there was a division among them.

Jhn 9:33 If this man were not of God, he could do nothing.

Jhn 13:3 Jesus knowing that the Father had given all things into his hands, and that he was come from God, and went to God;

Jhn 16:30 Now are we sure that thou knowest all things, and needest not that any man should ask thee: by this we believe that thou camest forth from God.

Jhn 19:7 The Jews answered him, We have a law, and by our law he ought to die, because he made himself the Son of God.

Jhn 20:17 Jesus saith unto her, Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father: but go to my brethren, and say unto them, I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and [to] my God, and your God.


Thanks, TBax.
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TBax
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PostPosted: Wed Jul 11, 2007 12:44 pm    Post subject: Reply with quote

Apoc,

Hi, Very Happy

No I will not address each and every instance you provided. Rolling Eyes I will admit theos alone can be translated God when it fits, like in those instances. Theos alone can also be translated "a god" when it fits as well, like at John 1:1 or John 10:30-36(see below).
The fact is "a god" is a proper rendering at John 1:1 and fits in harmony with the rest of the Bible.
"The Word was God" is a possible proper rendering but doesn't fit in harmony with the rest of the Bible.





You are missing the point. There is a descrepency as to how this can be translated. Are you saying every time theos is used without the definite article it is refering to God Almighty?

John 10:33 The Jews answered him: “We are stoning you, not for a fine work, but for blasphemy, even because you, although being a man, make yourself a god.” 34 Jesus answered them: “Is it not written in your Law, ‘I said: “YOU are gods”’? 35 If he called ‘gods’ those against whom the word of God came, and yet the Scripture cannot be nullified, 36 do YOU say to me whom the Father sanctified and dispatched into the world, ‘You blaspheme,’ because I said, I am God’s Son?

Here, in Green, "theos" is used without the definite article.
The Blue "theos" is used with the definite article.

Are you saying all these instances should be saying "God", as in God Almighty.

Jesus' point in that scripture is that since these imperfect men can be called gods then certainly God's own Son can be a god. Smile

Did Jesus think he was God?
John 17:3 In prayer to his Father "3 This means everlasting life, their taking in knowledge of you, the only true God, and of the one whom you sent forth, Jesus Christ. "

Did the apostles think Jesus was God?
This is what the apostles believed 1 Cor 8:6 there is actually to us one God the Father, out of whom all things are, and we for him; and there is one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom all things are, and we through him.

Apoc, if you are going to harp on your understanding of greek you are going to miss the point. The scriptures make it clear.

Apoc wrote:
Indeed, no man has seen God in His essence, Spirit. But then the Spirit became flesh for us all to behold. I've already give you a verse in John where we are told that we see God in the Son, but you have ignored it.


I didn't ignor it. I posted this in an edit. Maybe you missed it. Here it is again.Very Happy

TBax wrote:
Apoc wrote:
No man has seen God as Spirit, for Spirit is intangible. God has, however, been seen in the flesh!

Quote:
(John 6:46) Not that any man has seen the Father, except he who is from God; this one has seen the Father

First of all John 1:18 doesn't make that qualification. Second, the scripture you used shows Jesus isn't God, but was sent from God.
Apoc wrote:
Yes, and we see the Father in the Son:

If ye had known me, ye should have known my Father also: and from henceforth ye know him, and have seen him. - John 14:7


Yes, Jesus was perfectly taught by God and reflected His qualities perfectly. But the scripture hold true that :
John 1:18 No man has seen God at any time; the only-begotten god who is in the bosom [position] with the Father is the one that has explained him.

Hence Jesus is not God, but explained Him to us.


Take care. Very Happy


And this was written after Jesus was here. Confused or disgusted Actually, all the NT was, but here you go.

(1 John 4:12) At no time has anyone beheld God.

Take care. Very Happy
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apocatastasis
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PostPosted: Wed Jul 11, 2007 4:00 pm    Post subject: Reply with quote

TBax wrote:
No I will not address each and every instance you provided. Rolling Eyes


Why not? It shouldn't take you long at all, if that's what you are concerned about. I think it is absolutely essential for the discussion that we address the Johaninne usage of theos without the definite article. And why the roll-eyes?
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apocatastasis
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PostPosted: Wed Jul 11, 2007 4:07 pm    Post subject: Reply with quote

Apoc wrote:
No man has seen God as Spirit, for Spirit is intangible. God has, however, been seen in the flesh!



TBax wrote:

First of all John 1:18 doesn't make that qualification.


The use of theos without the definite article refers to God almighty in His essence: Spirit!

Jhn 1:12 But as many as received him, to them gave he power to become the sons of God, [even] to them that believe on his name:


Children of Spirit!

Jhn 1:13 Which were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God.

Born of Spirit (That which is born of Spirit is Spirit).

TBax, I would like to invite you to discuss this matter with the experts. John the B-Greek mailing list and let's see what the scholars say about your claims about the Greek text. What do you say? Very Happy
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Steven3
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PostPosted: Wed Jul 11, 2007 4:32 pm    Post subject: Reply with quote

Hi apocatastasis and TBax
You probably know this, but the definite article ("the"/"ho"etc) doesn't work the same in Greek in English. And also no amount of grammatical probing is going to shed as much light on John1:1-3 as comparison with the Logos and Arche in Luke 1:2 etc.

By the way.. seeing this thread is/was about Is.9:6, the Hebrew definite article doesn't work as English (or Greek) either. Wink
S
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