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Divine revelation vs. human wisdom


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sandra3102
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Joined: 13 Mar 2006
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PostPosted: Sat Jun 02, 2007 3:03 pm    Post subject: Fighting self Reply with quote

My brethren, I enjoy reading all your posts that indeed we recognize divine revelation as the TRUTH in the WORD. The hindrance to obtaining it are the following taboos that seem impossible to leave behind.

The curse for trusting men:

* Jer 17:5 Thus saith the LORD; Cursed be the man that trusteth in man, and maketh flesh his arm, and whose heart departeth from the LORD.

The folly of leaning to our own understanding:

* Prov 3:5 Trust in the LORD with all thine heart; and lean not unto thine own understanding.

The temptation being influenced by feeling or emotion:

• Jer 17:9 The heart is deceitful above all things, and desperately wicked: who can know it?

What virtue have we forgotten in yearning for divine knowledge and wisdom?

• Jam 1:5 If any of you lack wisdom, LET HIM ASK OF GOD, that giveth to all men liberally, and upbraideth not; and it shall be given him.
• Jam 1:6 But let him ask in faith, nothing wavering. For he that wavereth is like a wave of the sea driven with the wind and tossed.
• Jam 1:7 For let not that man think that he shall receive any thing of the Lord.
• Jam 1:8 A double minded man is unstable in all his ways.

Do we not reject the following because this is anathema to our mind and feeling?

1 Joh 2:27 But the anointing which ye have received of him abideth in you, and YE NEED NOT THAT ANY MAN TEACH YOU: but as the same anointing teacheth you of all things, and is truth, and is no lie, and even as it hath taught you, ye shall abide in him.
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Schuckdaddy
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PostPosted: Sat Jun 02, 2007 3:47 pm    Post subject: Reply with quote

Quote:
The word may be ambiguous to you but it is not to me.


1 John 1:1-4 (ESV)
Quote:
1That which was from the beginning, which "we" have heard, which "we" have seen with our eyes, which "we" looked upon and have touched with our hands, concerning the word of life-- 2the life was made manifest, and "we" have seen it, and testify to it and proclaim to you the eternal life, which was with the Father and was made manifest to "us"-- 3that which "we" have seen and heard "we" proclaim also to you, so that you too may have fellowship with "us"; and indeed our fellowship is with the Father and with his Son Jesus Christ. 4And "we" are writing these things so that our joy may be complete.


I quote this passage as an example of how the text can be ambiguous at times. Note that the "we" has no antecedent, the book begins by the author referring to himself and some other people, but that group is undefined in the text. There are some clues to help us understand(it could be the apostles, all believers, Jewish believers, a church congregation, John and his companions), but ultimately there is nothing in the text that tells us who the "we" is. Our understanding of the "we" can have some crucial implications as we read the text, (The context of the "we" isn't clearly broken as the epistle continues) and yet we the readers are not supplied with a sufficient explanation of who this group is.

I believe that this is where Spirit led decision making comes into play. To understand the text we as readers have to make decisions in our attempt to understand what is being said. We have to seek the most reasonable solution.

What is so frightening about not having certainty?

Can't we trust God to lead us through the challenges of understanding the difficult portions his word?
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45degreeN
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PostPosted: Sat Jun 02, 2007 5:16 pm    Post subject: Reply with quote

Cars, airplanes, and cigarettes were never mentioned anywhere in scripture. So there cant be any scriptural word from God on them.


There are two ways to be certain of your answer, 1) if some recent prophecy mentions them (and there is controversy about there being any recent prophecy at all)2) you use some common sense and logic to come up with some reasonable answer. Just be aware that either/both of them might not be the actual word of God but emotion laden human reasoning.

This is why it is so important to trust God for the outcome and not worry in the mean time. God never expected us to be perfect in the first place and if the human wsidom is not good enough then we can be forgiven for those mistakes. In fact faith requires us to not be certain and definitely faith is something that God wants us to have lots of. 90%courage 9% persistence, 1% all the rest is what my teacher used to say.

God hates cowards and those who are so afraid to make decisions because of their fear of making a mistake.
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nana
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PostPosted: Sat Jun 02, 2007 8:14 pm    Post subject: Reply with quote

Greetings

Quote:
Quote:
Quote:Schuckdaddy:

1That which was from the beginning, which "we" have heard, which "we" have seen with our eyes, which "we" looked upon and have touched with our hands, concerning the word of life-- 2the life was made manifest, and "we" have seen it, and testify to it and proclaim to you the eternal life, which was with the Father and was made manifest to "us"-- 3that which "we" have seen and heard "we" proclaim also to you, so that you too may have fellowship with "us"; and indeed our fellowship is with the Father and with his Son Jesus Christ. 4And "we" are writing these things so that our joy may be complete.


The book of Galatians 2:9, says that Paul went to the Gentiles and John to the Jews.

When the epistles of John were written it was the Jews that had understanding of what God had said (chapter 1)and what was written. It was the Jews who handled the words of life. It was according to Romans chapter 3 that the Jews had the advantage of the oracles of God.

It had long been prophesied that a Messiah would come and make atonement for their sins. The Gentiles had no forknowledge of prophecy.

It was the Jews who had trouble fellowshipping with the Gentile believers, not the other way around.

All of the first chapter of 1 John seems clear to whom it is written, and with that in mind then you can make sence of the book.

Please try reading it as it is written to the Jews and I believe that you will not believe the book to be at all ambiguous.

In Christ, Judy
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45degreeN
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PostPosted: Sun Jun 03, 2007 7:15 am    Post subject: Reply with quote

Nana, I've already written about the issues that I consider vague or ambiguous there might be others. Schuckdaddy chose this particular one which I dont consider ambiguous either.

Jesus spoke in parables so that some people could understand and others might claim they didn't understand.

Mark4:
Quote:
11And he said unto them, Unto you it is given to know the mystery of the kingdom of God: but unto them that are without, all these things are done in parables:

12That seeing they may see, and not perceive; and hearing they may hear, and not understand; lest at any time they should be converted, and their sins should be forgiven them.



Is this not the definition of ambiguous?
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nana
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PostPosted: Sun Jun 03, 2007 8:55 am    Post subject: Reply with quote

Hi 45,

The parables of the kingdom were only spoken to the Jews. He spoke to them in parables so that they might understand and be converted.

To rightly divide the word of truth one must see that the Kingdom of God is clearly spoken to us by the Apostle Paul and the rest.

Jesus said to the Jews before he went to the cross:

John 16:25, "These things have I spoken unto you in proverbs (parables): but the time cometh, when I shall no more speak unto you in proverbs, BUT I SHALL SHOW YOU PLAINLY OF THE FATHER."

Paul said to 'rightly divide' the Word of Truth because if we do not we will not see the difference before and after the resurrection of Christ.

The Epistles of John were not written in parables, but speak plainly of the Father.

The 'without' that it is speaking of in the Gospel of John is speaking to the Jews who will not believe that Christ is the Messiah, the only begotten Son of God who is going to bless the WORLD.

In Christ, Judy
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sandra3102
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PostPosted: Sun Jun 03, 2007 12:41 pm    Post subject: Demonstration of divine revelation Reply with quote

DIVINE REVELATION BY “DEMONSTRATION”

A choice between "divine revelation" vs. "human wisdom"

Our Lord speaks the “language of man.” Hebrew to the Jews in the following. He told His listeners:

• “Destroy this temple and in three days I will raise it up.”

It is clear the people listening to Him were divided into two groups:

1. The JEWS who tried to understand what they heard in their Hebrew language.

2. The APOSTLES/DISCIPLES, although speaking the same language, preferred to wait for our Lord’s revelation of what He intended to mean.

Let us listen to the JEWS:

• Joh 2:20 Then said the Jews, Forty and six years was this temple in building, and wilt thou rear it up in three days?

• Mat 27:40 And saying, Thou that destroyest the temple, and buildest it in three days, save thyself. If thou be the Son of God, come down from the cross.

Let us observe the APOSTLES/DISCIPLES

• Joh 2:21 But he spake of the temple of his body.

• Joh 2:22 When therefore he was risen from the dead, his disciples remembered that he had said this unto them; and they believed the scripture, and the word which Jesus had said.

It is obvious and everybody now knows that the Apostles/Disciples got the right message when they “waited” for our Lord reveal His words by “demonstration.”

The Jews, on the other hand, used their human competence with the use of the “intellect, senses, and feeling” trying to understand the word of our Lord.

Now we can see the results of the two:

* The interpretation of the JEWS brought sadness to the Lord.

* The Apostles/Disciples received divine revelation by "waiting" for our Lord to "expound His words" BELIEVED THE SCRIPTURES.
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Schuckdaddy
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PostPosted: Sun Jun 03, 2007 1:00 pm    Post subject: Reply with quote

Nana wrote:
Please try reading it as it is written to the Jews and I believe that you will not believe the book to be at all ambiguous.


My point wasn't who it was written to, but rather who it was written from. the author(s) refer to himself(themselves) as "we". My point was that you have an idea of who that "we" should be interpreted as and I have a differing opinion (I think the "we" refers to the apostles, "we have heard" "we have seen" "we have looked upon and have touched"). Given that differing opinion what determines rightness and wrongness? Sure one of us is right and the other is wrong, or we are both wrong, but I couldn't say that both of us were right. I'm assuming that both of us have the Holy Spirit guiding our interpretation. So what do we do? How do we determine rightness and wrongness? Can this issue be settled? We may both have very good reasons for our position, but ultimately one of us is wrong. I'm ok with that. But if there really isn't enough information to make an overwhelmingly strong case either way then don't we have to admit some ambiguity?

(I chose this as my example because its rather benign)
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Schuckdaddy
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PostPosted: Sun Jun 03, 2007 1:12 pm    Post subject: Reply with quote

How about the question of which manuscript is primary when a textual variant exist where accepted and reliable sources contain differing readings?
How do you make a decision on which reading is accurate?

(Please don't say read the KJV)
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nana
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PostPosted: Sun Jun 03, 2007 2:43 pm    Post subject: Reply with quote

Greetings Schuck,

Quote:
How about the question of which manuscript is primary when a textual variant exist where accepted and reliable sources contain differing readings?
How do you make a decision on which reading is accurate?




I have had many translations in the past. I have one Bible that has 28 versions . I have not rested in my diligence to understand the scriptures, but I find that the KJV and a Strong's Concordance suit me fine.

Please don't misunderstand me, I am not saying that you haven't done the same thing, but my experience has shown me that the KJV deviates little from the iInterliner and many of the other versions except the newer translations that have taken the blood out and other than that I don't know.

I am at home in the KJV. I know where verses are and I generally know the subject of the book. I am on my 5th KJV and I read daily. In the past if I was confused about a passage I would literally cry out to God for the meaning. The meaning did not come easily nor instantly. I have fasted and prayed for enlightenment. It has meant the loss of friends and loved ones, but nevertheless my priority is Everlasting Life.

There are many that have done the same as I, I am nothing special, I only tell you this because God has been faithful, not because He regards me above anyone elce, it is his promise to reveal his word to anyone who cries out with a pure and honest heart.

I have never murmered or uttered a word against my Lord. I know that if there is confusion it is me that is at fault.

God is obligated to reveal his word for Christ's sake, He wants us to be filled with the knowledge of His word and to walk as children of the light.

If God were looking a faults (he is not) he would be sickened by our ignorance, having given us The Book filled with the knowledge of Him.

In Christ, Judy
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sandra3102
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PostPosted: Tue Jun 05, 2007 12:54 pm    Post subject: Re: Divine revelation vs. human wisdom Reply with quote

sandra3102 wrote:
How do we distinguish “divine revelation” from “human wisdom”?

It looks like Christianity is divided because, instead of divine revelation from the word of God, it is human wisdom that made people believe differently about the word of God.



Is not this a demonstation of divine revelation regarding the IDENTITY of Jesus?

In many verses, and instances, Jesus acted as "Son of God." Could it be the reason for Him in the following?

• "I am the Way..." (Joh 14:6)
• "Jesus showed the example..." (1 Pet. 2:21)
• "Jesus is the model of the chosen..." (Rom 8:29)


Jesus referred to himself as "I AM" in John 8:58. "I AM" was how God revealed himself to Moses in Exodus. Jesus also said "I and the Father are one."

In many verses, and instances, Jesus did not act as an example but showed the POWER OF GOD in the Old Testament. Could this be the reason that Jesus, having a human body, now could PERFORM THE REQUIREMENT IN A TESTAMENT as written in:

Heb 9:16 For where a testament is, there must also of necessity be the death of the testator.

• Who is the TESTATOR or who made the TESTAMENT OF SALVATION?
• In many verses in the Old Testament, it was FATHER GOD talking to His chosen people!

Therefore, WHO IS JESUS as He died on the cross, saying:

"IT IS FINISHED!" (Joh 19:30)


What did apostle John mean when he wrote:

• 1 Joh 3:16 (KJV) Hereby perceive we the love of God, because he laid down his life for us...

• 1 Joh 5:20 And we know that the Son of God is come, and hath given us an understanding, that we may know him that is true, and we are in him that is true, even in his Son Jesus Christ. This is the true God, and eternal life.

Who is Jesus CHRIST?


Who is JESUS CHRIST that Simon Peter recognized in?

• Mat 16:15 He saith unto them, But whom say ye that I am?

• Mat 16:16 And Simon Peter answered and said, Thou art the CHRIST, the SON of the living God.

• Mat 16:17 And Jesus answered and said unto him, Blessed art thou, Simon Barjona: for flesh and blood hath not revealed it unto thee, but my Father which is in heaven.

Of Nathanael?

• Joh 1:49 Nathanael answered and saith unto him, Rabbi, thou art the SON of God; thou art the KING (CHRIST) of Israel.

Of Martha?

• Joh 11:27 She saith unto him, Yea, Lord: I believe that thou art the CHRIST, the SON of God, which should come into the world.

What does CHRIST mean? _____? ______? ______?
Who really is the CHRIST?

Only at KJV!

1 Tim 3:16 And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit…
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Schuckdaddy
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PostPosted: Tue Jun 05, 2007 2:31 pm    Post subject: Reply with quote

I wasn't talking about English versions, I was talking about Greek(and to a lesser extent Hebrew) manuscripts that contain different readings for the same verse. In some cases its a different word or words, sometimes its a whole phrase that's been added or changed from manuscript to manuscript. And sometimes most agree with one reading but often the manuscripts are divided as to which reading is the original.

Because we have these multitudes of Greek manuscripts and each one varies from time to time on how they render any particular text, its important to know how the decision is made as to which rendering is the correct one.

This is the job a translator does, so most of the ambiguities have been handled before you get to the English text. They make the decisions for you, and when you are reading someone's translation you are basically trusting them that the decisions they made were the correct ones and the manuscripts they used were accurate.

The problem is that the translators may have been unduly influenced in their choices (whether knowingly or not), and have chosen a particular rendering or wording that did not reflect the original, and there is no way to confirm or deny that it is the original, because we don't have any extant autographs.

The thing is that the further back you push any topic the less certainty you can have about that topic, there just isn't enough information to provide adequate answers. That's why I think its important to discuss these topics as brothers and sisters in Christ, to come to issues with grace and humility, and recognize that understanding is what we aim for but absolute certainty is outside of the realm of our ability.

We are a body and as such the multiplicity of our perspectives enhance our collective understanding of the word God has revealed.
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sandra3102
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PostPosted: Wed Jun 06, 2007 11:00 am    Post subject: Human wisdom Reply with quote

Where does human wisdom come in the recognition of the One True God?
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Schuckdaddy
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PostPosted: Wed Jun 06, 2007 11:44 am    Post subject: Re: Human wisdom Reply with quote

sandra3102 wrote:
Where does human wisdom come in the recognition of the One True God?


Natural revelation - Romans 1
Apart from the Spirit, to know about God is to suppress the truth about Him.

On the other side "reason" (order that has been created by God) is essential to knowledge, knowledge is essential to belief, and belief essential to faith.

Divorce reason from faith and you have meaninglessness.
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sandra3102
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PostPosted: Wed Jun 13, 2007 12:30 pm    Post subject: Elucidation comes from our Lord ALONE! Reply with quote

God uses the “language of man” with which the Holy Bible is written: English to the Americans, German to the Germans, Hebrew to the Jews, etc. With this we understand why it is written:

• Eze 20:49 Then said I, Ah Lord GOD! they say of me, Doth he not speak parables?

So was Jesus prophesied to speak parables:

• Psa 78:2 I will open my mouth in a parable: I will utter dark sayings of old:

True to what “is written,” did Jesus speak except in parables?

• Mar 4:34 BUT WITHOUT A PARABLE SPAKE HE NOT UNTO THEM: and when they were alone, he expounded all things to his disciples.

Was Simon Peter, John, James or any of the Apostles/Disciples authorized to expound on the words of our Lord?

• Mar 4:34 But without a parable spake he not unto them: and WHEN THEY WERE ALONE, HE EXPOUNDED ALL THINGS TO HIS DISCIPLES.

Today, why do professing apostles take upon themselves this sole authority, and trust other people instead of trusting God?

• Jer 17:5 Thus saith the LORD; CURSED BE THE MAN THAT TRUSTETH IN MAN, and maketh flesh his arm, and whose heart departeth from the LORD.

Why do we “lean unto our own understanding” instead of trusting God to reveal His message?

• Prov 3:5 Trust in the LORD with all thine heart; and LEAN NOT UNTO THINE OWN UNDERSTANDING.

Can we really trust God to give us the real message of His words?

• Jam 1:5 If any of you lack wisdom, LET HIM ASK OF GOD, that giveth to all men liberally, and upbraideth not; and it shall be given him. 6 But let him ask in faith, nothing wavering. For he that wavereth is like a wave of the sea driven with the wind and tossed. 7 For let not that man think that he shall receive any thing of the Lord. 8 A double minded man is unstable in all his ways.

Can we believe this?

• 1 Joh 2:27 But the anointing which ye have received of him abideth in you, and YE NEED NOT THAT ANY MAN TEACH YOU: but as the same anointing teacheth you of all things, and is truth, and is no lie, and even as it hath taught you, ye shall abide in him.

Can we accept this?

* Jer 17:9 The heart is deceitful above all things, and desperately wicked: who can know it?

How do we answer this questions?
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