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Lesbianism is not addressed in the Bible?


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Biblical Laws
Gospel trumphs Old Testament laws
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Old Testament Laws are completely invalid
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You have to find the truth yourself, new or old testament
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FFT
Emperor of the Galaxy



Joined: 26 Mar 2005

Posts: 5705

Location: Memphis

PostPosted: Sat Dec 01, 2007 12:45 pm    Post subject: Reply with quote

Craig2uguys wrote:
Romans 1:22-32 is very much more than just a condemnation of idol worship—it sets forth a consequence of idol worship; the people spoken of worshiped idols rather than God and consequently God gave them over to impurity and degrading passions. The impurity and degrading passions specifically mentioned are male and female homosexual conduct. Paul used these examples of the consequence of worshiping idols because, to the first-century Jew, nothing was more disgusting and vile than homosexual sex.
You'd think they'd have written more about it were that the case.

And are you implying that Paul was not talking about a literal event?

Craig2uguys wrote:
These first-century Jews were of mixed opinion regarding marriage and divorce and adultery and many other issues and Jesus taught on those issues to make it very clear where He and His Father stood on those issues. However, these Jews were not of mixed minds when it came to homosexuality—they believed that the practice of homosexuality was the ultimate expression of a depraved mind and decadent morality.
And yet contemporary Greeks were doing it all over the place, why isn't there more written about it?

Craig2uguys wrote:
Therefore we would not expect to find Jesus teaching on that subject, and we don’t.
Ah, you're begging the question. Now your argument makes sense.

Still wrong, of course, but at least it makes sense.
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Craig2uguys
Hamster



Joined: 30 Nov 2007
Posts: 87


PostPosted: Sat Dec 01, 2007 1:01 pm    Post subject: Reply with quote

FFT wrote:
Craig2uguys wrote:
Romans 1:22-32 is very much more than just a condemnation of idol worship—it sets forth a consequence of idol worship; the people spoken of worshiped idols rather than God and consequently God gave them over to impurity and degrading passions. The impurity and degrading passions specifically mentioned are male and female homosexual conduct. Paul used these examples of the consequence of worshiping idols because, to the first-century Jew, nothing was more disgusting and vile than homosexual sex.
You'd think they'd have written more about it were that the case.

And are you implying that Paul was not talking about a literal event?

Craig2uguys wrote:
These first-century Jews were of mixed opinion regarding marriage and divorce and adultery and many other issues and Jesus taught on those issues to make it very clear where He and His Father stood on those issues. However, these Jews were not of mixed minds when it came to homosexuality—they believed that the practice of homosexuality was the ultimate expression of a depraved mind and decadent morality.
And yet contemporary Greeks were doing it all over the place, why isn't there more written about it?

Craig2uguys wrote:
Therefore we would not expect to find Jesus teaching on that subject, and we don’t.
Ah, you're begging the question. Now your argument makes sense.

Still wrong, of course, but at least it makes sense.


We undoubtedly have today only a tiny fraction of the literature written in the first century A.D., and yet in this tiny fraction we find more references to homosexual behavior than some may suppose, but the very large part of it is not readily available to the general reading public but is found in large university libraries and has not been translated into English or any other modern language.

Although we find many references in early Greek literature to pedophilia and bestiality, are we to suppose that such practices are sanctioned by God in the Bible simply because there is no mention of these subjects in the Bible?
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