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Steven3 Lion King
Joined: 10 Jul 2007
 Posts: 1205 Location: UK
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Posted: Fri Jul 13, 2007 9:25 pm Post subject: Why did Thomas use two "my"s? |
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John 20:28 Thomas answered him, “My Lord and my God!”
Why is the second "my" there? |
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RevJP Moderator
Joined: 18 Apr 2003
     Posts: 6845 Location: USA
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Posted: Fri Jul 13, 2007 9:49 pm Post subject: |
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John 20:28-29 Thomas answered Him, My Lord and my God! (29) Jesus said to him, Because you have seen Me, Thomas, do you now believe (trust, have faith)? Blessed and happy and to be envied are those who have never seen Me and yet have believed and adhered to and trusted and relied on Me.
The text is plain: Jesus comes in - sees Thomas, and addresses him; desiring him to come to him, and put his finger into the print of the nails, etc. Thomas, perfectly satisfied of the reality of our Lord’s resurrection, says unto him, - My Lord! and My God! i.e. Thou art indeed the very same person, - my Lord whose disciple I have so long been; and thou art my God, henceforth the object of my religious adoration. Thomas was the first who gave the title of God to Jesus; and, by this glorious confession, made some amends for his former obstinate incredulity. It is worthy of remark, that from this time forward the whole of the disciples treated our Lord with the most supreme respect, never using that familiarity towards him which they had often used before. The resurrection from the dead gave them the fullest proof of the divinity of Christ. And this, indeed, is the use which St. John makes of this manifestation of Christ. See Joh_20:30, Joh_20:31. Bishop Pearce says here: “Observe that Thomas calls Jesus his God, and that Jesus does not reprove him for it, though probably it was the first time he was called so.” And, I would ask, could Jesus be jealous of the honor of the true God - could he be a prophet - could he be even an honest man, to permit his disciple to indulge in a mistake so monstrous and destructive, if it had been one?
~ Adam Clarke
Joh 20:28 -
My Lord and my God - In this passage the name God is expressly given to Christ, in his own presence and by one of his own apostles. This declaration has been considered as a clear proof of the divinity of Christ, for the following reasons:
1. There is no evidence that this was a mere expression, as some have supposed, of surprise or astonishment.
2. The language was addressed to Jesus himself - “Thomas ...said unto him.”
3. The Saviour did not reprove him or check him as using any improper language. If he had not been divine, it is impossible to reconcile it with his honesty that he did not rebuke the disciple. No pious man would have allowed such language to be addressed to him. Compare Act_14:13-15; Rev_22:8-9.
4. The Saviour proceeds immediately to commend Thomas for believing; but what was the evidence of his believing? It was this declaration, and this only. If this was a mere exclamation of surprise, what proof was it that Thomas believed? Before this he doubted. Now he believed, and gave utterance to his belief, that Jesus was his Lord and his God.
5. If this was not the meaning of Thomas, then his exclamation was a mere act of profaneness, and the Saviour would not have commended him for taking the name of the Lord his God in vain. The passage proves, therefore, that it is proper to apply to Christ the name Lord and God, and thus accords with what John affirmed in Joh_1:1, and which is established throughout this gospel.
~ Albert Barnes |
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Steven3 Lion King
Joined: 10 Jul 2007
 Posts: 1205 Location: UK
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Posted: Fri Jul 13, 2007 10:10 pm Post subject: |
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Hi RevJP, Thanks | Adam Clarke wrote: | | Thou art indeed the very same person, - my Lord whose disciple I have so long been; and thou art my God, henceforth the object of my religious adoration. | Yes, much better than what Thomas actually said
But where do Clarke and Barnes address why the second "my" is there?
S |
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TBax King of the Jungle
Joined: 24 Oct 2005
  Posts: 1942
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Posted: Sat Jul 14, 2007 3:18 am Post subject: |
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Steven3,
Hi,
Thomas used the same phrasing in both instances in refering to him as his Master (Lord) and then God.
Why do you view this as significant?
Later.  |
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knuckle Young Wolf
Joined: 18 Sep 2006
 Posts: 501
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Posted: Sat Jul 14, 2007 3:54 am Post subject: |
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Hi Steven----------
Thomas is a picture of us.His doubt,his "I will believe it when I see it" attitude is a big part of the Christian mind set.We all go through a period where we come face to face with the risen Christ-----and not all answer as Thomas did.
My Lord is about recognizing that Christ is our Master and we are to serve Him
My God is about deity and we are to love and worship Him
My Lord and My God is about mindset we are to claim Him
Some recognize God but do not serve some Serve out of fear and do not love and some recognize and serve without claiming Him.It is a very personal relationship we have with God now through Jesus.
This picture in Thomas is like the great invitation to those who came after and never knew Jesus in the flesh.The whole book of John kind of leads us up to this point.All the miracles all of the I am's, the whole of Christ's works and testimony sets the stage and we are left with the question---Who IS this Jesus? I agree with Thomas,He is MY LORD and MY GOD!!
much love-----------knuckle |
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Steven3 Lion King
Joined: 10 Jul 2007
 Posts: 1205 Location: UK
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Posted: Sat Jul 14, 2007 3:58 am Post subject: |
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Hi Knuckle | knuckle wrote: | | I agree with Thomas,He is MY LORD and MY GOD!! | Okay, so why the second "my"?
S |
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knuckle Young Wolf
Joined: 18 Sep 2006
 Posts: 501
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Posted: Sat Jul 14, 2007 4:35 am Post subject: |
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Hi Steven--------
Because I claim him as both
If I served Him but hated Him He wold be My Lord and God
If I recognized Him but didn't serve He would be Lord and My God
we must claim Christ as both My Lord and My God
Joh 20:29 Jesus saith unto him, Thomas, because thou hast seen me, thou hast believed: blessed are they that have not seen, and yet have believed.
Doubting Thomas is called a believer after this instance.He put two and two together and came up with the right answer.
Now Steven perhaps I misunderstand the point of your question are you asking why the two MYs were used or is the question why is the My before Theos? Are you trying to differentiate between Thomas' My Theos and The Theos?
much love--------knuckle |
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Steven3 Lion King
Joined: 10 Jul 2007
 Posts: 1205 Location: UK
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Posted: Sat Jul 14, 2007 5:07 am Post subject: |
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Hi K | knuckle wrote: | | Now Steven perhaps I misunderstand the point of your question are you asking why the two MYs were used or is the question why is the My before Theos? Are you trying to differentiate between Thomas' My Theos and The Theos? |
Sorry, simpler than that. In English we're fairly relaxed about grammar, but the Greeks were less slack. In Greek separate pronouns usually mean separate people:
The king and emperor = 1 person
The king and the emperor = 2 people
My friend and teacher = 1 person
My friend and my teacher = 2 persons
My wife and my sister = 2 people
My wife and sister = 1 person (she's also baptised) |
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knuckle Young Wolf
Joined: 18 Sep 2006
 Posts: 501
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Posted: Sat Jul 14, 2007 6:48 am Post subject: |
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Hi Steven---------
Joh 20:17 Jesus saith unto her, Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father: but go to my brethren, and say unto them, I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and to my God, and your God.
Greek is a bit well "greek" to me if you will explain the sentence structure here in relation to your above example.
thanks and much love---------knuckle |
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RevJP Moderator
Joined: 18 Apr 2003
     Posts: 6845 Location: USA
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Posted: Sat Jul 14, 2007 8:03 am Post subject: |
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| Steven3 wrote: |
Sorry, simpler than that. In English we're fairly relaxed about grammar, but the Greeks were less slack. In Greek separate pronouns usually mean separate people:
The king and emperor = 1 person
The king and the emperor = 2 people
My friend and teacher = 1 person
My friend and my teacher = 2 persons
My wife and my sister = 2 people
My wife and sister = 1 person (she's also baptised) |
I do believe you have it exactly opposite of what it truly is linguistically. The separate pronouns used here are emphatic declarations of Thomas's realization that Jesus is his Lord, and He is God. |
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TwoPutt Fierce Puppy
Joined: 12 Jul 2007
 Posts: 227 Location: Texas
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Posted: Sat Jul 14, 2007 8:46 am Post subject: |
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| RevJP wrote: | | I do believe you have it exactly opposite of what it truly is linguistically. The separate pronouns used here are emphatic declarations of Thomas's realization that Jesus is his Lord, and He is God. |
Actually, Thomas' declaration here is a continuation of the last words he and Jesus shared. Thomas' statement "my Lord and my God" is his declaration that he understood Jesus' statement concerning seeing the Father (Jn 14:7). Since Jesus isn't the Father, we see that Thomas finally grasped the significance of what Jesus had said. |
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RevJP Moderator
Joined: 18 Apr 2003
     Posts: 6845 Location: USA
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Posted: Sat Jul 14, 2007 1:55 pm Post subject: |
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| I disagree. I think you are missing a very important aspect of the scenario in which Jesus commended Thomas rather than rebuke him for naming Him God. |
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TwoPutt Fierce Puppy
Joined: 12 Jul 2007
 Posts: 227 Location: Texas
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Posted: Sat Jul 14, 2007 3:35 pm Post subject: |
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| RevJP wrote: | | I disagree. I think you are missing a very important aspect of the scenario in which Jesus commended Thomas rather than rebuke him for naming Him God. |
I never even alluded to any rebuke. I pointed out Thomas' declaration as it related directly to what Jesus told him in their last conversation. |
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TwoPutt Fierce Puppy
Joined: 12 Jul 2007
 Posts: 227 Location: Texas
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Posted: Sat Jul 14, 2007 3:35 pm Post subject: |
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| BTW, Thomas didn't name Jesus God. |
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Steven3 Lion King
Joined: 10 Jul 2007
 Posts: 1205 Location: UK
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Posted: Sat Jul 14, 2007 6:28 pm Post subject: |
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| RevJP wrote: | | Steven3 wrote: |
Sorry, simpler than that. In English we're fairly relaxed about grammar, but the Greeks were less slack. In Greek separate pronouns usually mean separate people:
The king and emperor = 1 person
The king and the emperor = 2 people
My friend and teacher = 1 person
My friend and my teacher = 2 persons
My wife and my sister = 2 people
My wife and sister = 1 person (she's also baptised) |
I do believe you have it exactly opposite of what it truly is linguistically. The separate pronouns used here are emphatic declarations of Thomas's realization that Jesus is his Lord, and He is God. |
In a word, No . Tell me if you have a grammar on your shelves and I'll tell you where to look.
God bless
S |
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